Boldface:

Emergency egress on ground

Answer:

  1. Seat pin in
  2. Leg restraints release
  3. Seat harness release
  4. Oxygen mask hose disconnect
  5. Mictel disconnect
  6. PSP disconnect
  7. Canopy open

Boldface:

Emergency landing checks

Answer:

  1. Airspeed 180 KIAS
  2. Landing gear handle down
  3. Emergency landing gear handle pull
  4. Flaps as required
  5. After aircraft has stopped:
  6. Batt 1, batt 2 off

Boldface:

Engine fire or smoke and fumes - on ground

Answer:

  1. ACS shut off Pull
  2. PCL Fuel off
  3. Fuel hydraulic cutoff Pull
  4. Batts and gens Off
  5. Brakes As required
  6. Emergency egress on ground (procedure)

Boldface:

Engine fire - in flight

Answer:

  1. EO2 Pull
  2. ACS shut off Pull
  3. PCL Minimum practical
  4. PMS Manual
  5. Check for fire
  6. If fire is not confirmed:
  7. Land as soon as possible
  8. If fire confirmed:
  9. PCL Fuel off
  10. Fuel hyd cut off Pull
  11. Batt 1 Off
  12. Gen 1 and gen 2 Off
  13. If fire persists:
  14. Eject

Boldface:

Smoke or fumes in cockpit - in flight

Answer:

  1. EO2 Pull
  2. ACS shut off Pull
  3. Cabin pressue Ram
  4. If fumes continue:
  5. Gen 1 and gen 2 Off

Boldface:

Aborted take off

Answer:

  1. PCL Idle
  2. Brake As required
  3. If aborting due to engine fire
  4. Engine fire or smoke and fumes on ground (procedure)

Boldface:

Engine failure after take off

Answer:

  1. PCL Fuel off
  2. If suitable runway is available:
  3. Fuel hyd cut off Pull
  4. Emergency landing checks (procedure)

Boldface:

Engine mechanical failure

Answer:

  1. PCL Fuel off
  2. Fuel hyd cut off Pull
  3. EO2 Pull if above 10,000 ft

Boldface:

Engine flame out

Answer:

  1. PCL Idle
  2. Ignitors On

Boldface:

Engine Surge

Answer:

  1. PCL Idle
  2. Land as soon as posssible

Boldface:

PMS Failure (PMS manual)

Answer:

  1. PCL Control engine limits manually

Boldface:

Engine Torque

Answer:

  1. PCL Minimum practical
  2. Land as soon as possible

Boldface:

Propeller Speed

Answer:

  1. Overspeed - NP above 2200 RPM (warning)
  2. PCL Minimum practical
  3. Air speed Reduce
  4. Land as soon as possible

Boldface:

Engine temperature - in flight

Answer:

  1. If ITT above 860°C
  2. PCL Minimum practical
  3. Land as soon as possible

Boldface:

Engine speed

Answer:

  1. NG below 50.7% (caution):
  2. Ignitors On
  3. PCL Slowly increase power
  1. NG above 104% (caution for 2 seonds then warning):
  2. PCL min practical
  3. If warning remains:
  4. Land as soon as possible

Boldface:

Oil pressure out of limits

Answer:

  1. If warning or caution remains indicated:
  2. PCL Minimum practical
  3. If warning is indicated
  4. Land as soon as possible

Boldface:

Oil temperature high - on ground

Answer:

  1. PCL Fuel off
  2. EMD shows temperature

Boldface:

Oil temperature high - in flight

Answer:

  1. PCL Minimum practical
  2. Land as soon as possible
  3. EMD shows temperature

Boldface:

Metal particles detected in gear box

Answer:

  1. PCL Minimum practical
  2. Land as soon as possible

Boldface:

Uncommanded power changes

Answer:

  1. PCL Idle
  2. PMS Manual
  3. PCL As required
  4. The maximum permitted torque is 2850 ft lb (67.5%) with the PMS in manual mode

Boldface:

Oxygen system off (both cockpits)

Answer:

  1. Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
  2. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  3. EO2 Pull
  4. Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface:

OBOGS computer BIT failure

Answer:

  1. Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
  2. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  3. EO2 Pull
  4. Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface:

OBOGS failure

Answer:

  1. Oxygen Off (both cockpits)
  2. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  3. EO2 Pull
  4. Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface:

Oxygen pressure or concentration low

Answer:

  1. Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
  2. PCL Increase if possible
  3. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  4. EO2 Pull
  5. Decend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface:

OXY flow warning

Answer:

  1. Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
  2. If rear cockpit affected
  3. Instructor switch Front or rear selected
  4. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  5. EO2 affected cockpit Pull
  6. Decend below 10,000 ft cabin altutude

Boldface:

Cabin altitude above 25,000 ft

Answer:

  1. Decend to 25,000 ft cabin altitude or below

Boldface:

Aircraft altitude above 26,000 ft

Answer:

  1. Decend to 25,000 ft aircraft alt or below

Boldface:

Cabin over pressure warning

Answer:

  1. Cabin press Press dump
  2. PCL Minimum practical

Boldface:

Fuel pressure low

Answer:

  1. Fuel pumps On
  2. PCL Minimum practical
  3. If warning remains:
  4. Land as soon as possible

Boldface:

Trim runaway

Answer:

  1. Trim/aileron power Off

Boldface:

Aileron control system malfunction

Answer:

  1. Trim/aileron power Off

Boldface:

Flap failure

Answer:

  1. Air speed Below 180 KIAS

Boldface:

Gear retraction failure

Answer:

  1. Air speed Below 180 KIAS

Boldface:

Gear lowering failure

Answer:

  1. Air speed Below 180 KIAS

Boldface:

Gear retraction failure - with UWS or ESG

Answer:

  1. Air speed Below 180 KIAS

Boldface:

Gear lowering failure - with UWS or ESG

Answer:

  1. Air speed Below 180 KIAS

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

FIRE

DWP:

FIRE

(On ground)

Answer:

Fire or smoke and fumes on ground

  1. ACS shut off Pull
  2. PCL Fuel off
  3. Fuel hydraulic cutoff Pull
  4. Batts and gens Off
  5. Brakes As required
  6. Emergency egress on ground (procedure)

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

FIRE

DWP:

FIRE

(In flight)

Answer:

Engine fire - in flight

  1. EO2 Pull
  2. ACS shut off Pull
  3. PCL Minimum practical
  4. PMS Manual
  5. Check for fire
  6. If fire is not confirmed:
  7. Land as soon as possible
  8. If fire confirmed:
  9. PCL Fuel off
  10. Fuel hyd cut off Pull
  11. Batt 1 Off
  12. Gen 1 and gen 2 Off
  13. If fire persists:
  14. Eject

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

FIRE

DWP:

FIRE

(Smoke or fumes in flight)

Answer:

Smoke or fumes in cockpit - in flight

  1. EO2 Pull
  2. ACS shut off Pull
  3. Cabin pressue Ram
  4. If fumes continue:
  5. Gen 1 and gen 2 Off

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

PMS MANUAL

DWP:

PMS

Answer:

PMS Failure (PMS Manual)

  1. PCL control engine limits manually

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

ENG TORQUE

ENG TORQUE

DWP:

---

Answer:

Engine torque

  1. PCL minimum practical
  2. If warning or caution remains:
  3. Land as soon as possible

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

PROP SPEED

DWP:

---

Answer:

Propeller speed

EMD shows NP

  1. Overspeed - NP above 2200 RPM (warning)
  2. PCL Minimum practical
  3. Air speed Reduce
  4. Land as soon as possible

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

ENG ITT

ENG ITT

DWP:

---

Answer:

Engine temperature - in flight

  1. If ITT above 860°C
  2. PCL Minimum practical
  3. Land as soon as possible

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

ENG NG

DWP:

---

Answer:

Engine speed low

EMD shows NG

  1. NG below 50.7% (caution):
  2. Ignitors On
  3. PCL Slowly increase power

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

ENG NG

DWP:

---

Answer:

Engine speed

EMD shows NG

  1. NG above 104% (caution for 2 seonds then warning):
  2. PCL min practical
  3. If warning remains:
  4. Land as soon as possible

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OIL PRESS

DWP:

OIL

Answer:

Oil pressure out of limits (warning)

  1. PCL Minimum practical
  2. Land as soon as possible

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OIL PRESS

DWP:

OIL

Answer:

Oil pressure out of limits (caution)

  1. PCL Minimum practical
  2. Monitor oil pressure
  3. Land when practical

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OIL TEMP

DWP:

---

(On ground)

Answer:

Oil temperature high - on ground

EMD shows oil temp

  1. PCL fuel off

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OIL TEMP

DWP:

---

(In flight)

Answer:

Oil temperature high - in flight

EMD shows oil temp

  1. PCL min practical
  2. Land as soon as possible

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

CHIP PROP or CHIP AGB

DWP:

CHIP

Answer:

Metal particles detected in gear box

  1. PCL min practical
  2. Land as soon as possible

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OXY OFF

ECS

NO ANTI-G

OXY
DWP:

OXY

Answer:

Oxygen system off (both cockpits)

  1. Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
  2. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  3. EO2 Pull
  4. Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OXY

ECS
OXY

OXY BIT

DWP:

OXY

Answer:

OBOGS computer BIT failure

  1. Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
  2. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  3. EO2 Pull
  4. Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OXY

ECS

NO ANTI G

OXY

OXY FAIL

DWP:

OXY

Answer:

OBOGS failure

  1. Oxygen off (both cockpits)
  2. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  3. EO2 Pull
  4. Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OXY

ECS

NO ANTI G

OXY

OXY FAIL

DWP:

OXY

Answer:

OBOGS failure

  1. Oxygen off (both cockpits)
  2. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  3. EO2 Pull
  4. Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OXY

ECS

ANTI G

OXY

LOW OXY

DWP:

OXY

Answer:

Oxygen pressure or oxygen concentration low

  1. Oxygen ON check flow, connections, mask
  2. PCL increase if possible
  3. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  4. EO2 Pull
  5. Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

OXY FLOW

ECS
OXY

OXY FLOW

DWP:

---

Answer:

Oxy flow warning

  1. Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
  2. If rear cockpit affected
  3. Instructor switch Front or rear selected
  4. If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
  5. EO2 affected cockpit Pull
  6. Decend below 10,000 ft cabin altutude

Boldface by warning:

MFD:

CAB HI PRESS

DWP:

OVPR

Answer:

Cabin over pressure warning

  1. Cabin press Press dump
  2. PCL Minimum practical

Limitation:

Flaps down max speed

Answer:

180 KIAS

Limitation:

VMO

Answer:

370 KIAS

Maximum operating manoeuvring speed

Maximum airspeed in which full aerodynamic control can be applied without overstressing the aircraft unless otherwise limited

Limitation:

Aileron VO

Answer:

370 KIAS

Limitation:

Rudder VO

Answer:

220 KIAS

From 220 - 370 KIAS rudder deflection linearly reduced from 100% to 30%

Limitation:

VLE

Answer:

180 KIAS

Limitation:

VFE

Answer:

180 KIAS

Maximum flap extended speed

Highest permissible speed with flats not fully retracted

Limitation:

VLE

Answer:

180 KIAS

Maximum landing gear extended speed

Maximum speed at which the aircraft can be safely flown with landing gear extended

Limitation:

VR

Answer:

92 KIAS

Rotation speed

During TO

Limitation:

VTD

Answer:

99 KIAS

Touchdown speed

During LDG

Limitation:

Max ITT (startup)

Answer:

860°C - 910°C max 20s

910°C - 1000°C max 5s

Limitation:

Max oil pressure (startup)

Answer:

200 PSI

Limitation:

Oil temperature (startup)

Answer:

-40°C min

Limitation:

Max ITT (ground idle)

Answer:

750°C between 50.7% and 61.4% NG

Limitation:

Minimum oil pressure (ground idle)

Answer:

80 PSI

Limitation:

Oil temperature (ground idle)

Answer:

-40°C - 105°C

Limitation:

Min NG (ground idle)

Answer:

54%

Limitation:

SHP (take off, max continuous)

Answer:

1600 SHP

Limitation:

Torque (take off, max continuous)

Answer:

4202 ft lb

Limitation:

Max NG (take off, max continuous)

Answer:

104%

Limitation:

Max NP (take off, max continuous)

Answer:

2000 rpm

Limitation:

Oil pressure (take off, max continuous)

Answer:

90 - 125 PSI

Limitation:

Oil temperature (take off, max continuous)

Answer:

10°C - 105°C

Limitation:

Torque (transient)

Answer:

4874 ft lb, max 20 secs

Limitation:

Max ITT (transient)

Answer:

860°C - 910°C, max 20 secs

Limitation:

Max NG (transient)

Answer:

104%

Limitation:

Max NP (transient)

Answer:

2200 rpm, max 20 secs

Limitation:

Oil pressure (transient)

Answer:

90 - 125 PSI

Limitation:

Oil temperature (transient)

Answer:

10°C - 105°C

Limitation:

G limit - flaps and landing gear retracted

Answer:

+8g, -4g

Limitation:

G limit - flaps retracted, landing gear extended

Answer:

+8g, -4g

Limitation:

G limit - flaps in transition, TO, LDG

Answer:

+4g, 0g

Limitation:

G limit - landing gear travelling

Answer:

+2g, 0g

Limitation:

Abrupt movement (< 1 sec) of aileron from neutral to full deflection is prohibited when Gz (load factor) is:

Answer:

+5g, -1g

Limitation:

MMO

Answer:

0.72 M

Maximum operating manoeuvring speed expressed in Mach

Maximum airspeed in which full aerodynamic control can be applied without overstressing the aircraft unless otherwise limited

Limitation:

Elevator VO

Answer:

220 KIAS

Above 220 KIAS no abrupt full deflection

Limitation:

VLO

Answer:

180 KIAS

Maximum landing gear operating speed

Maximum speed at which the LG can be safely extended or retracted

Limitation:

Max ITT (take off, max continuous)

Answer:

860°C

Abbreviation:

TTI

Answer:

Triple Trim Indicator

Abbreviation:

NP

Answer:

Propeller speed

Abbreviation:

ACS

Answer:

Air Cycle System

Abbreviation:

AF/D

Answer:

Airport Facility/Directory

Abbreviation:

AIP

Answer:

Aeronatical Information Publication

Abbreviation:

AMU

Answer:

Audio Management Unit

Abbreviation:

AsA

Answer:

Airservices Australia

Abbreviation:

ATIS

Answer:

Automatic Terminal Information Service

Abbreviation:

AWIS

Answer:

Aerodrome Weather Information Service

Abbreviation:

BIT

Answer:

Built In Test

Abbreviation:

BoD

Answer:

Beginning of Daylight

Abbreviation:

BTC

Answer:

Bus Tie Contactor

Abbreviation:

CAVOK

Answer:

Ceiling and Visibility OK

Abbreviation:

CFS

Answer:

Canopy Fracturing System

Abbreviation:

CRS

Answer:

Course

Abbreviation:

CTAF

Answer:

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency

Abbreviation:

DWP

Answer:

Dedicated warning panel

Abbreviation:

EICAS

Answer:

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System

Abbreviation:

ELT

Answer:

Emergency Locator Transmitter

Abbreviation:

EMD

Answer:

Engine Monitoring Display

Abbreviation:

EoD

Answer:

End of Daylight

Abbreviation:

ETI

Answer:

Estimated Time Interval

Abbreviation:

FCMC

Answer:

Fuel Control and Monitoring Computer

Abbreviation:

FGC

Answer:

Flight Guidance Computer

Abbreviation:

FLIP

Answer:

Flight Information Publication

Abbreviation:

FMS

Answer:

Flight Management System

Abbreviation:

FQC

Answer:

Fuel Qauntity Computer

Abbreviation:

GPA

Answer:

General Planning Australia

Abbreviation:

HDG/TAS

Answer:

Heading True Air Speed Vector

Abbreviation:

IAT

Answer:

Indicated Air Temperature

Abbreviation:

ICAO

Answer:

International Civil Aviation Organization

Abbreviation:

ILS

Answer:

Intrusment Landing System

Abbreviation:

IRS

Answer:

Inertial Reference System

Abbreviation:

ISA

Answer:

International Standard Atmosphere

Abbreviation:

ITT

Answer:

Inter Turbine Temperature

Abbreviation:

LLSC

Answer:

Low Level Sensing Computer

Abbreviation:

LMT

Answer:

Local Mean Time

Abbreviation:

MC

Answer:

Mission Computer

Abbreviation:

MDC

Answer:

Miniature Detonating Cord

Abbreviation:

MSL

Answer:

Mean Sea Level

Abbreviation:

MTOW

Answer:

Maximum Take Off Weight

Abbreviation:

NAIPS

Answer:

National Aeronautical Information Processing System

Abbreviation:

NG

Answer:

Gas turbine speed - read in % or rpm

Abbreviation:

NOTAM

Answer:

Notices to Airmen

Abbreviation:

OAT

Answer:

Outside Air Temperature

Abbreviation:

OBOGS

Answer:

On-Board Oygen Generating System

Abbreviation:

ONC

Answer:

Operational Navigational Charts

Abbreviation:

PA

Answer:

Pressure Altitude

Abbreviation:

PFD

Answer:

Primary Flight Display

Abbreviation:

PHt

Answer:

Pressure Height

Abbreviation:

PIU

Answer:

Propeller Interface Unit

Power Interface Unit

Abbreviation:

PMS

Answer:

Power management system

Abbreviation:

PSP

Answer:

Personal Survival Pack

Abbreviation:

PTS

Answer:

Pilot Training System

Abbreviation:

PTT

Answer:

Press to Transmit

Abbreviation:

REIL

Answer:

Runway End Identifier Lights

Abbreviation:

RIOC

Answer:

Remote Input Output Concentrator

Abbreviation:

SFD

Answer:

Secondary Flight Display

Abbreviation:

SI

Answer:

International System of Units

Abbreviation:

TAD

Answer:

Trim Aid Device

Abbreviation:

TAF

Answer:

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

Abbreviation:

TAWS

Answer:

Terrain Awareness and Warning System

Abbreviation:

TMG

Answer:

Track Made Good

Abbreviation:

TR/GS

Answer:

Track Ground Speed Vector

Abbreviation:

UFCP

Answer:

Up Front Control Panel

Abbreviation:

VASIS

Answer:

Visual Approach Slope Indicator System

Abbreviation:

VCS

Answer:

Vapour Cycle System

Abbreviation:

VNC

Answer:

Visual Navigation Chart

Scale 1:500,000

Abbreviation:

VOR

Answer:

Very High Frquency Omni-Directional Range

Abbreviation:

W/V

Answer:

Wind Velocity Vector

Abbreviation:

WAC

Answer:

World Aeronautical Chart

Scale 1:1,000,000

Abbreviation:

WGS84

Answer:

World Geodetic System 1984

Abbreviation:

WOW

Answer:

Weight on Wheels

Abbreviation:

VS

Answer:

Stalling speed

Minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable

Abbreviation:

VS0

Answer:

Stalling speed landing configuration

Minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable in the landing configuration

Abbreviation:

VS1

Answer:

Stalling speed specified configuration

Minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable in a specific configuration

Abbreviation:

VX

Answer:

Indicated airspeed for best angle of climb

Abbreviation:

VY

Answer:

Indicated airspeed for best rate of climb

Abbreviation:

ADU

Answer:

Air Data Unit

Abbreviation:

ADC

Answer:

Air Data Computer

Abbreviation:

CPCV

Answer:

Cabin Pressure Control Valve

Abbreviation:

TAT

Answer:

Total Air Temperature

Abbreviation:

TACAN

Answer:

Tactical Air Navigation

Abbreviation:

VTC

Answer:

Visual Terminal Chart

Scale 1:250,000

Abbreviation:

MSLP

Answer:

Mean Sea Level Pressure

Usually in reference to MSLP charts

Abbreviation:

PMM

Answer:

Pilot Memory Module

Abbreviation:

CEIWM

Answer:

Check Each Item With Me

Meteorology:

ISA MSL pressure

Answer:

1013.25 hPa

29.92 in Hg

Meteorology:

Composition of the atmosphere

Answer:

  • Nitrogen: 78%
  • Oxygen: 21%
  • Other gases: 1%

Meteorology:

Height of tropopause

Answer:

At the poles: 20,000ft

At the equator: 60,000ft

Meteorology:

ISA sea-level temperature

Answer:

15°C

Meteorology:

Lapse rate for temperature according to ISA

Answer:

1.98°C per 1000ft up t0 36,090ft (theoretical tropopause height of ISA)

For practical purposes: 2°C per 1000ft up to 36,000ft

Meteorology:

Assumed temperature at tropopause according to ISA

Answer:

-56.5°C at 36,090ft

Meteorology:

2 ways that a parcel of air can become saturated

Answer:

  1. More water vapor being added to it
  2. The air becoming cooler

Meteorology:

Sublimation

Answer:

Ice to vapour

Meteorology:

Deposition

Answer:

Vapour to ice

Meteorology:

Convection

Answer:

Energy transferred by the vertical movement of air

Meteorology:

Advection

Answer:

Energy transferred by the horizontal movement of air

Meteorology:

Of the radiation from the sun, on average, how much is: absorbed in the atmosphere by clouds and gases; reflected back to space; and is absorbed by the earth's surface

Answer:

  • Absorbed in the atmosphere by clouds and gases: 20%
  • Reflected back to space: 31%
  • Absorbed by the earth's surface: 49%

Meteorology:

Percentage of earth's terrestrial radiation that is absorbed by the atmosphere

Answer:

90%

Meteorology:

Which state of water contains the most amount of latent heat

Answer:

Water vapour

Meteorology:

Threshold for switching between QNH and QNE in Australia

Answer:

10,000ft

Meteorology:

Density of dry air at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere

Answer:

1.225 kg/m3

Meteorology:

Approximate pressure lapse rate near sea level

Answer:

1hPa per 30 feet

Meteorology:

DALR / SALR

Answer:

Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (approx 3°C/1000ft)

Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate (usually 1.5°C/1000ft)

Meteorology:

Dew point lapse rate

Answer:

0.6°C/1000ft

Meteorology:

Three common causes of temperature inversions

Answer:

  1. Radiation from the earth's surface;
  2. Subsidence (sinking air) associated with high pressure systems;
  3. Frontal systems.

Meteorology:

Low clouds

Answer:

Below 8500ft

  1. Stratus
  2. Cumulus
  3. Towering Cumulus
  4. Stratocumulus
  5. Cumulonimbus

Meteorology:

Medium clouds

Answer:

8500ft to 20,000ft

  1. Altocumulus
  2. Altostratus
  3. Nimbostratus

Meteorology:

High clouds

Answer:

Above 20,000ft

  1. Cirrocumulus
  2. Cirrostratus
  3. Cirrus

Meteorology:

Subsidence

Answer:

Downward movement of an air parcel as it cools and becomes denser.

Meteorology:

Isothermal

Answer:

Temperature lapse rate is 0. Temperature remains the same for a specific vertical distance.

Meteorology:

Convergence

Answer:

Convergence occurs when there is a net horizontal inflow of air into a surface region. The accumulated mass of air near the surface leads to up motion.

Meteorology:

Divergence

Answer:

Divergence occurs when there is a net horizontal outflow of air at the surface (termed horizontal divergence). The deficit of air at low levels leads to downward motion.

Meteorology:

Gusts

Answer:

Increases in wind speed lasting for just a few seconds and are indicative of instability and turbulence in the boundary layer.

Meteorology:

Squalls

Answer:

Strong winds that rise suddenly, last for some minutes, and then rapidly die away again.

  1. an increase of at least 16 knots over the mean wind speed; and
  2. the wind speed during the time of the squall must be 22 knots or more; and
  3. the duration must be at least one minute.

Meteorology:

Wind sheer

Answer:

Marked change in wind direction and/or speed.

Meteorology:

Föhn wind

Answer:

Dry, warm, down-slope wind that occurs in the lee of a mountain range

Meteorology:

3 basic conditions for thunderstorm development

Answer:

  1. Instability
  2. A lifting mechanism
  3. Low-level moisture

Meteorology:

What type of cloud produces a thunderstorm

Answer:

Cumulonimbus

Meteorology:

A tropical low becomes a tropical cyclone when the mean winds around the centre reach what speed?

Answer:

34kts or more

Meteorology:

In a tropical cyclone, where are the winds and weather the most severe?

Answer:

Left hand front quadrant

Meteorology:

Stages of tropical cycle life cycle

Answer:

  • Formative
  • Immature
  • Mature
  • Decaying

Meteorology:

What will interrupt a tropical cyclone's energy supply?

Answer:

  • Moving over colder water
  • Moving over land

Meteorology:

In a METAR/SPECI and TAF what is the reference datum for the measurement of cloud height?

Answer:

The aerodrome (ie, above ground level)

Engine:

How many stages of compression are in the Compressor Section?

Answer:

5

  • 4 stages of axial compression
  • 1 stage of centrifugal compression

Engine:

What comprises the Gas Generator Section?

Answer:

  1. Compressor section
  2. Combustion chamber
  3. Compressor turbine (drives turbines in compressor section)

Engine:

What comprises the Power Turbine Section?

Answer:

2 stage turbine (extracts most of the energy from gas flow and mechanically drives the propeller through the reduction gearbox)

Engine:

What drives the accessory gearbox?

Answer:

Compressor turbine

Engine:

What governs the engine system?

Answer:

Power management system (PMS)

Options