Boldface:
Emergency egress on ground
Answer:
- Seat pin in
- Leg restraints release
- Seat harness release
- Oxygen mask hose disconnect
- Mictel disconnect
- PSP disconnect
- Canopy open
Boldface:
Emergency landing checks
Answer:
- Airspeed 180 KIAS
- Landing gear handle down
- Emergency landing gear handle pull
- Flaps as required
- After aircraft has stopped:
- Batt 1, batt 2 off
Boldface:
Engine fire or smoke and fumes - on ground
Answer:
- ACS shut off Pull
- PCL Fuel off
- Fuel hydraulic cutoff Pull
- Batts and gens Off
- Brakes As required
- Emergency egress on ground (procedure)
Boldface:
Engine fire - in flight
Answer:
- EO2 Pull
- ACS shut off Pull
- PCL Minimum practical
- PMS Manual
- Check for fire
- If fire is not confirmed:
- Land as soon as possible
- If fire confirmed:
- PCL Fuel off
- Fuel hyd cut off Pull
- Batt 1 Off
- Gen 1 and gen 2 Off
- If fire persists:
- Eject
Boldface:
Smoke or fumes in cockpit - in flight
Answer:
- EO2 Pull
- ACS shut off Pull
- Cabin pressue Ram
- If fumes continue:
- Gen 1 and gen 2 Off
Boldface:
Aborted take off
Answer:
- PCL Idle
- Brake As required
- If aborting due to engine fire
- Engine fire or smoke and fumes on ground (procedure)
Boldface:
Engine failure after take off
Answer:
- PCL Fuel off
- If suitable runway is available:
- Fuel hyd cut off Pull
- Emergency landing checks (procedure)
Boldface:
Engine mechanical failure
Answer:
- PCL Fuel off
- Fuel hyd cut off Pull
- EO2 Pull if above 10,000 ft
Boldface:
Engine flame out
Answer:
- PCL Idle
- Ignitors On
Boldface:
Engine Surge
Answer:
- PCL Idle
- Land as soon as posssible
Boldface:
PMS Failure (PMS manual)
Answer:
- PCL Control engine limits manually
Boldface:
Engine Torque
Answer:
- PCL Minimum practical
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface:
Propeller Speed
Answer:
- Overspeed - NP above 2200 RPM (warning)
- PCL Minimum practical
- Air speed Reduce
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface:
Engine temperature - in flight
Answer:
- If ITT above 860°C
- PCL Minimum practical
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface:
Engine speed
Answer:
- NG below 50.7% (caution):
- Ignitors On
- PCL Slowly increase power
- NG above 104% (caution for 2 seonds then warning):
- PCL min practical
- If warning remains:
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface:
Oil pressure out of limits
Answer:
- If warning or caution remains indicated:
- PCL Minimum practical
- If warning is indicated
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface:
Oil temperature high - on ground
Answer:
- PCL Fuel off
- EMD shows temperature
Boldface:
Oil temperature high - in flight
Answer:
- PCL Minimum practical
- Land as soon as possible
- EMD shows temperature
Boldface:
Metal particles detected in gear box
Answer:
- PCL Minimum practical
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface:
Uncommanded power changes
Answer:
- PCL Idle
- PMS Manual
- PCL As required
- The maximum permitted torque is 2850 ft lb (67.5%) with the PMS in manual mode
Boldface:
Oxygen system off (both cockpits)
Answer:
- Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface:
OBOGS computer BIT failure
Answer:
- Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface:
OBOGS failure
Answer:
- Oxygen Off (both cockpits)
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface:
Oxygen pressure or concentration low
Answer:
- Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
- PCL Increase if possible
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Decend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface:
OXY flow warning
Answer:
- Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
- If rear cockpit affected
- Instructor switch Front or rear selected
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 affected cockpit Pull
- Decend below 10,000 ft cabin altutude
Boldface:
Cabin altitude above 25,000 ft
Answer:
- Decend to 25,000 ft cabin altitude or below
Boldface:
Aircraft altitude above 26,000 ft
Answer:
- Decend to 25,000 ft aircraft alt or below
Boldface:
Cabin over pressure warning
Answer:
- Cabin press Press dump
- PCL Minimum practical
Boldface:
Fuel pressure low
Answer:
- Fuel pumps On
- PCL Minimum practical
- If warning remains:
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface:
Trim runaway
Answer:
- Trim/aileron power Off
Boldface:
Aileron control system malfunction
Answer:
- Trim/aileron power Off
Boldface:
Flap failure
Answer:
- Air speed Below 180 KIAS
Boldface:
Gear retraction failure
Answer:
- Air speed Below 180 KIAS
Boldface:
Gear lowering failure
Answer:
- Air speed Below 180 KIAS
Boldface:
Gear retraction failure - with UWS or ESG
Answer:
- Air speed Below 180 KIAS
Boldface:
Gear lowering failure - with UWS or ESG
Answer:
- Air speed Below 180 KIAS
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
FIRE
DWP:
FIRE
(On ground)
Answer:
Fire or smoke and fumes on ground
- ACS shut off Pull
- PCL Fuel off
- Fuel hydraulic cutoff Pull
- Batts and gens Off
- Brakes As required
- Emergency egress on ground (procedure)
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
FIRE
DWP:
FIRE
(In flight)
Answer:
Engine fire - in flight
- EO2 Pull
- ACS shut off Pull
- PCL Minimum practical
- PMS Manual
- Check for fire
- If fire is not confirmed:
- Land as soon as possible
- If fire confirmed:
- PCL Fuel off
- Fuel hyd cut off Pull
- Batt 1 Off
- Gen 1 and gen 2 Off
- If fire persists:
- Eject
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
FIRE
DWP:
FIRE
(Smoke or fumes in flight)
Answer:
Smoke or fumes in cockpit - in flight
- EO2 Pull
- ACS shut off Pull
- Cabin pressue Ram
- If fumes continue:
- Gen 1 and gen 2 Off
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
PMS MANUAL
DWP:
PMS
Answer:
PMS Failure (PMS Manual)
- PCL control engine limits manually
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
ENG TORQUE
ENG TORQUE
DWP:
---
Answer:
Engine torque
- PCL minimum practical
- If warning or caution remains:
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
PROP SPEED
DWP:
---
Answer:
Propeller speed
EMD shows NP
- Overspeed - NP above 2200 RPM (warning)
- PCL Minimum practical
- Air speed Reduce
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
ENG ITT
ENG ITT
DWP:
---
Answer:
Engine temperature - in flight
- If ITT above 860°C
- PCL Minimum practical
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
ENG NG
DWP:
---
Answer:
Engine speed low
EMD shows NG
- NG below 50.7% (caution):
- Ignitors On
- PCL Slowly increase power
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
ENG NG
DWP:
---
Answer:
Engine speed
EMD shows NG
- NG above 104% (caution for 2 seonds then warning):
- PCL min practical
- If warning remains:
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OIL PRESS
DWP:
OIL
Answer:
Oil pressure out of limits (warning)
- PCL Minimum practical
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OIL PRESS
DWP:
OIL
Answer:
Oil pressure out of limits (caution)
- PCL Minimum practical
- Monitor oil pressure
- Land when practical
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OIL TEMP
DWP:
---
(On ground)
Answer:
Oil temperature high - on ground
EMD shows oil temp
- PCL fuel off
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OIL TEMP
DWP:
---
(In flight)
Answer:
Oil temperature high - in flight
EMD shows oil temp
- PCL min practical
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
CHIP PROP or CHIP AGB
DWP:
CHIP
Answer:
Metal particles detected in gear box
- PCL min practical
- Land as soon as possible
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OXY OFF
NO ANTI-G
DWP:
OXY
Answer:
Oxygen system off (both cockpits)
- Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OXY
OXY BIT
DWP:
OXY
Answer:
OBOGS computer BIT failure
- Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OXY
NO ANTI G
OXY FAIL
DWP:
OXY
Answer:
OBOGS failure
- Oxygen off (both cockpits)
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OXY
NO ANTI G
OXY FAIL
DWP:
OXY
Answer:
OBOGS failure
- Oxygen off (both cockpits)
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OXY
ANTI G
LOW OXY
DWP:
OXY
Answer:
Oxygen pressure or oxygen concentration low
- Oxygen ON check flow, connections, mask
- PCL increase if possible
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 Pull
- Descend below 10,000 ft cabin altitude
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
OXY FLOW
OXY FLOW
DWP:
---
Answer:
Oxy flow warning
- Oxygen On. Check flow, connections, mask
- If rear cockpit affected
- Instructor switch Front or rear selected
- If above 10,000 ft cabin altitude and problem remains
- EO2 affected cockpit Pull
- Decend below 10,000 ft cabin altutude
Boldface by warning:
MFD:
CAB HI PRESS
DWP:
OVPR
Answer:
Cabin over pressure warning
- Cabin press Press dump
- PCL Minimum practical
Limitation:
Flaps down max speed
Answer:
180 KIAS
Limitation:
VMO
Answer:
370 KIAS
Maximum operating manoeuvring speed
Maximum airspeed in which full aerodynamic control can be applied without overstressing the aircraft unless otherwise limited
Limitation:
Aileron VO
Answer:
370 KIAS
Limitation:
Rudder VO
Answer:
220 KIAS
From 220 - 370 KIAS rudder deflection linearly reduced from 100% to 30%
Limitation:
VLE
Answer:
180 KIAS
Limitation:
VFE
Answer:
180 KIAS
Maximum flap extended speed
Highest permissible speed with flats not fully retracted
Limitation:
VLE
Answer:
180 KIAS
Maximum landing gear extended speed
Maximum speed at which the aircraft can be safely flown with landing gear extended
Limitation:
VR
Answer:
92 KIAS
Rotation speed
During TO
Limitation:
VTD
Answer:
99 KIAS
Touchdown speed
During LDG
Limitation:
Max ITT (startup)
Answer:
860°C - 910°C max 20s
910°C - 1000°C max 5s
Limitation:
Max oil pressure (startup)
Answer:
200 PSI
Limitation:
Oil temperature (startup)
Answer:
-40°C min
Limitation:
Max ITT (ground idle)
Answer:
750°C between 50.7% and 61.4% NG
Limitation:
Minimum oil pressure (ground idle)
Answer:
80 PSI
Limitation:
Oil temperature (ground idle)
Answer:
-40°C - 105°C
Limitation:
Min NG (ground idle)
Answer:
54%
Limitation:
SHP (take off, max continuous)
Answer:
1600 SHP
Limitation:
Torque (take off, max continuous)
Answer:
4202 ft lb
Limitation:
Max NG (take off, max continuous)
Answer:
104%
Limitation:
Max NP (take off, max continuous)
Answer:
2000 rpm
Limitation:
Oil pressure (take off, max continuous)
Answer:
90 - 125 PSI
Limitation:
Oil temperature (take off, max continuous)
Answer:
10°C - 105°C
Limitation:
Torque (transient)
Answer:
4874 ft lb, max 20 secs
Limitation:
Max ITT (transient)
Answer:
860°C - 910°C, max 20 secs
Limitation:
Max NG (transient)
Answer:
104%
Limitation:
Max NP (transient)
Answer:
2000 rpm, max 20 secs
Limitation:
Oil pressure (transient)
Answer:
90 - 125 PSI
Limitation:
Oil temperature (transient)
Answer:
10°C - 105°C
Limitation:
G limit - flaps and landing gear retracted
Answer:
+8g, -4g
Limitation:
G limit - flaps retracted, landing gear extended
Answer:
+8g, -4g
Limitation:
G limit - flaps in transition, TO, LDG
Answer:
+4g, 0g
Limitation:
G limit - landing gear travelling
Answer:
+2g, 0g
Limitation:
Abrupt movement (< 1 sec) of aileron from neutral to full deflection is prohibited when Gz (load factor) is:
Answer:
+5g, -1g
Limitation:
MMO
Answer:
0.72 M
Maximum operating manoeuvring speed expressed in Mach
Maximum airspeed in which full aerodynamic control can be applied without overstressing the aircraft unless otherwise limited
Limitation:
Elevator VO
Answer:
220 KIAS
Above 220 KIAS no abrupt full deflection
Limitation:
VLO
Answer:
180 KIAS
Maximum landing gear operating speed
Maximum speed at which the LG can be safely extended or retracted
Limitation:
Max ITT (take off, max continuous)
Answer:
860°C
Abbreviation:
TTI
Answer:
Triple Trim Indicator
Abbreviation:
NP
Answer:
Propeller speed
Abbreviation:
ACS
Answer:
Air Cycle System
Abbreviation:
AF/D
Answer:
Airport Facility/Directory
Abbreviation:
AIP
Answer:
Aeronatical Information Publication
Abbreviation:
AMU
Answer:
Audio Management Unit
Abbreviation:
AsA
Answer:
Airservices Australia
Abbreviation:
ATIS
Answer:
Automatic Terminal Information Service
Abbreviation:
AWIS
Answer:
Aerodrome Weather Information Service
Abbreviation:
BIT
Answer:
Built In Test
Abbreviation:
BoD
Answer:
Beginning of Daylight
Abbreviation:
BTC
Answer:
Bus Tie Contactor
Abbreviation:
CAVOK
Answer:
Ceiling and Visibility OK
Abbreviation:
CFS
Answer:
Canopy Fracturing System
Abbreviation:
CRS
Answer:
Course
Abbreviation:
CTAF
Answer:
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency
Abbreviation:
DWP
Answer:
Dedicated warning panel
Abbreviation:
EICAS
Answer:
Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System
Abbreviation:
ELT
Answer:
Emergency Locator Transmitter
Abbreviation:
EMD
Answer:
Engine Monitoring Display
Abbreviation:
EoD
Answer:
End of Daylight
Abbreviation:
ETI
Answer:
Estimated Time Interval
Abbreviation:
FCMC
Answer:
Fuel Control and Monitoring Computer
Abbreviation:
FGC
Answer:
Flight Guidance Computer
Abbreviation:
FLIP
Answer:
Flight Information Publication
Abbreviation:
FMS
Answer:
Flight Management System
Abbreviation:
FQC
Answer:
Fuel Qauntity Computer
Abbreviation:
GPA
Answer:
General Planning Australia
Abbreviation:
HDG/TAS
Answer:
Heading True Air Speed Vector
Abbreviation:
IAT
Answer:
Indicated Air Temperature
Abbreviation:
ICAO
Answer:
International Civil Aviation Organization
Abbreviation:
ILS
Answer:
Intrusment Landing System
Abbreviation:
IRS
Answer:
Inertial Reference System
Abbreviation:
ISA
Answer:
International Standard Atmosphere
Abbreviation:
ITT
Answer:
Inter Turbine Temperature
Abbreviation:
LLSC
Answer:
Low Level Sensing Computer
Abbreviation:
LMT
Answer:
Local Mean Time
Abbreviation:
MC
Answer:
Mission Computer
Abbreviation:
MDC
Answer:
Miniature Detonating Cord
Abbreviation:
MSL
Answer:
Mean Sea Level
Abbreviation:
MTOW
Answer:
Maximum Take Off Weight
Abbreviation:
NAIPS
Answer:
National Aeronautical Information Processing System
Abbreviation:
NG
Answer:
Gas turbine speed - read in % or rpm
Abbreviation:
NOTAM
Answer:
Notices to Airmen
Abbreviation:
OAT
Answer:
Outside Air Temperature
Abbreviation:
OBOGS
Answer:
On-Board Oygen Generating System
Abbreviation:
ONC
Answer:
Operational Navigational Charts
Abbreviation:
PA
Answer:
Pressure Altitude
Abbreviation:
PFD
Answer:
Primary Flight Display
Abbreviation:
PHt
Answer:
Pressure Height
Abbreviation:
PIU
Answer:
Propeller Interface Unit
Power Interface Unit
Abbreviation:
PMS
Answer:
Power management system
Abbreviation:
PSP
Answer:
Personal Survival Pack
Abbreviation:
PTS
Answer:
Pilot Training System
Abbreviation:
PTT
Answer:
Press to Transmit
Abbreviation:
REIL
Answer:
Runway End Identifier Lights
Abbreviation:
RIOC
Answer:
Remote Input Output Concentrator
Abbreviation:
SFD
Answer:
Secondary Flight Display
Abbreviation:
SI
Answer:
International System of Units
Abbreviation:
TAD
Answer:
Trim Aid Device
Abbreviation:
TAF
Answer:
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast
Abbreviation:
TAWS
Answer:
Terrain Awareness and Warning System
Abbreviation:
TMG
Answer:
Track Made Good
Abbreviation:
TR/GS
Answer:
Track Ground Speed Vector
Abbreviation:
UFCP
Answer:
Up Front Control Panel
Abbreviation:
VASIS
Answer:
Visual Approach Slope Indicator System
Abbreviation:
VCS
Answer:
Vapour Cycle System
Abbreviation:
VNC
Answer:
Visual Navigation Chart
Scale 1:500,000
Abbreviation:
VOR
Answer:
Very High Frquency Omni-Directional Range
Abbreviation:
W/V
Answer:
Wind Velocity Vector
Abbreviation:
WAC
Answer:
World Aeronautical Chart
Scale 1:1,000,000
Abbreviation:
WGS84
Answer:
World Geodetic System 1984
Abbreviation:
WOW
Answer:
Weight on Wheels
Abbreviation:
VS
Answer:
Stalling speed
Minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable
Abbreviation:
VS0
Answer:
Stalling speed landing configuration
Minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable in the landing configuration
Abbreviation:
VS1
Answer:
Stalling speed specified configuration
Minimum steady flight speed at which the aircraft is controllable in a specific configuration
Abbreviation:
VX
Answer:
Indicated airspeed for best angle of climb
Abbreviation:
VY
Answer:
Indicated airspeed for best rate of climb
Abbreviation:
ADU
Answer:
Air Data Unit
Abbreviation:
ADC
Answer:
Air Data Computer
Abbreviation:
CPCV
Answer:
Cabin Pressure Control Valve
Abbreviation:
TAT
Answer:
Total Air Temperature
Abbreviation:
TACAN
Answer:
Tactical Air Navigation
Abbreviation:
VTC
Answer:
Visual Terminal Chart
Scale 1:250,000
Meteorology:
ISA MSL pressure
Answer:
1013.25 hPa
29.92 in Hg
Meteorology:
Composition of the atmosphere
Answer:
- Nitrogen: 78%
- Oxygen: 21%
- Other gases: 1%
Meteorology:
Height of tropopause
Answer:
At the poles: 20,000ft
At the equator: 60,000ft
Meteorology:
ISA sea-level temperature
Answer:
15°C
Meteorology:
Lapse rate for temperature according to ISA
Answer:
1.98°C per 1000ft up t0 36,090ft (theoretical tropopause height of ISA)
For practical purposes: 2°C per 1000ft up to 36,000ft
Meteorology:
Assumed temperature at tropopause according to ISA
Answer:
-56.5°C at 36,090ft
Meteorology:
2 ways that a parcel of air can become saturated
Answer:
- More water vapor being added to it
- The air becoming cooler
Meteorology:
Sublimation
Answer:
Ice to vapour
Meteorology:
Deposition
Answer:
Vapour to ice
Meteorology:
Convection
Answer:
Energy transferred by the vertical movement of air
Meteorology:
Advection
Answer:
Energy transferred by the horizontal movement of air
Meteorology:
Of the radiation from the sun, on average, how much is: absorbed in the atmosphere by clouds and gases; reflected back to space; and is absorbed by the earth's surface
Answer:
- Absorbed in the atmosphere by clouds and gases: 20%
- Reflected back to space: 31%
- Absorbed by the earth's surface: 49%
Meteorology:
Percentage of earth's terrestrial radiation that is absorbed by the atmosphere
Answer:
90%
Meteorology:
Which state of water contains the most amount of latent heat
Answer:
Water vapour
Meteorology:
Threshold for switching between QNH and QNE in Australia
Answer:
10,000ft
Meteorology:
Density of dry air at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere
Answer:
1.225 kg/m3
Meteorology:
Approximate pressure lapse rate near sea level
Answer:
1hPa per 30 feet
Meteorology:
DALR / SALR
Answer:
Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate (approx 3°C/1000ft)
Saturated Adiabatic Lapse Rate (usually 1.5°C/1000ft)
Meteorology:
Dew point lapse rate
Answer:
0.6°C/1000ft
Meteorology:
Three common causes of temperature inversions
Answer:
- Radiation from the earth's surface;
- Subsidence (sinking air) associated with high pressure systems;
- Frontal systems.
Meteorology:
Low clouds
Answer:
Below 8500ft
- Stratus
- Cumulus
- Towering Cumulus
- Stratocumulus
- Cumulonimbus
Meteorology:
Medium clouds
Answer:
8500ft to 20,000ft
- Altocumulus
- Altostratus
- Nimbostratus
Meteorology:
High clouds
Answer:
Above 20,000ft
- Cirrocumulus
- Cirrostratus
- Cirrus
Meteorology:
Subsidence
Answer:
Downward movement of an air parcel as it cools and becomes denser.
Meteorology:
Isothermal
Answer:
Temperature lapse rate is 0. Temperature remains the same for a specific vertical distance.
Meteorology:
Convergence
Answer:
Convergence occurs when there is a net horizontal inflow of air into a surface region. The accumulated mass of air near the surface leads to up motion.
Meteorology:
Divergence
Answer:
Divergence occurs when there is a net horizontal outflow of air at the surface (termed horizontal divergence). The deficit of air at low levels leads to downward motion.
Meteorology:
Gusts
Answer:
Increases in wind speed lasting for just a few seconds and are indicative of instability and turbulence in the boundary layer.
Meteorology:
Squalls
Answer:
Strong winds that rise suddenly, last for some minutes, and then rapidly die away again.
- an increase of at least 16 knots over the mean wind speed; and
- the wind speed during the time of the squall must be 22 knots or more; and
- the duration must be at least one minute.
Meteorology:
Wind sheer
Answer:
Marked change in wind direction and/or speed.
Meteorology:
Föhn wind
Answer:
Dry, warm, down-slope wind that occurs in the lee of a mountain range
Meteorology:
3 basic conditions for thunderstorm development
Answer:
- Instability
- A lifting mechanism
- Low-level moisture
Meteorology:
What type of cloud produces a thunderstorm
Answer:
Cumulonimbus
Engine:
How many stages of compression are in the Compressor Section?
Answer:
5
- 4 stages of axial compression
- 1 stage of centrifugal compression
Engine:
What comprises the Gas Generator Section?
Answer:
- Compressor section
- Combustion chamber
- Compressor turbine (drives turbines in compressor section)
Engine:
What comprises the Power Turbine Section?
Answer:
2 stage turbine (extracts most of the energy from gas flow and mechanically drives the propeller through the reduction gearbox)
Engine:
What drives the accessory gearbox?
Answer:
Compressor turbine
Engine:
What governs the engine system?
Answer:
Power management system (PMS)